UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 167): MCQs on Constitutional Amendment, State Election Commission and more

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.

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Which of the following statements are correct about the State Election Commissioner?

1. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the State Election Commissioner shall be such as the President may by rule determine.

2. The State Election Commission is responsible for the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats.

3. The conditions of service of the State Election Commissioner can be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

4. The State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Relevance: The State Election Commission (SEC) is a constitutional body created under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, making it an important topic in Indian Polity for UPSC Prelims. Issues related to the conduct of local body elections and the autonomy of SECs often appear in current affairs, increasing their relevance for Prelims.

Explanation

— The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The conditions of service and tenure of office of the State Election Commissioner shall be such as the Governor may by rule determine. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court and the conditions of service of the State Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. Hence, statement 3 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

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1. The recognised national and state parties’ candidates are allotted the reserved symbol of their respective parties.

2. For unrecognised parties, which are registered parties that have not met the electoral performance criteria for the national or state party tag, or independent candidates, the EC allots symbols from a list of “free symbols”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The Election Commission’s recognition of political parties and allotment of election symbols is a core topic under the UPSC Polity syllabus and has been asked in previous Prelims. Recent discussions regarding party recognition, election symbols, and disputes over symbol ownership have brought the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 into focus.

Explanation

— The EC allots election symbols to parties and independent candidates as per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. According to the Symbols Order, the recognised national and state parties’ candidates are allotted the reserved symbol of their respective parties — for instance, the lotus for the BJP, or the raised hand for the Congress. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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— For unrecognised parties, which are registered parties that have not met the electoral performance criteria for the national or state party tag, or independent candidates, the EC allots symbols from a list of “free symbols”. These candidates and unrecognised parties can request for their choice of symbol from the list, but they are not assured of getting the same. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— In the list of free symbols, which the EC revises from time to time, images include fruits, vegetables, household appliances, farm equipment, sports equipment, etc. The latest list, which was published by the EC on May 23, 2025, has 184 symbols, including air-conditioner, balloon, door bell, dustbin, frying pan, jackfruit, and grapes.

— Some household items such as immersion rod, latch, mixer, toothbrush, and TV remote are also on the list. A variety of fruits and vegetables as well as other food, including cake and toffees, are also on the list.

— The EC list also states that certain symbols can be allotted freely except in certain states and Union Territories. For instance, the apple can be allotted to a party “in all States and Union Territories except in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu, Kerala & Karnataka”.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 3

Consider the following provisions of the Constitution of India:

1. Article 54

2. Chapter I of Part XI

3. Seventh Schedule

4. Representation of States in Parliament

Which of the above provisions require a Constitutional Amendment Bill to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States before it can be presented to the President for assent?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Relevance: Federalism and Centre–State relations are a recurring UPSC theme, and provisions requiring State ratification reflect the federal character of the Constitution. Questions on Constitutional Amendment procedures under Article 368 have been asked directly and indirectly in previous UPSC Prelims.

Explanation

— An amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting, the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.

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— Certain Constitutional Amendments cannot be passed by Parliament alone. If an amendment seeks to change any of the following, it must also be approved by at least one-half of the State Legislatures before being sent to the President for assent:

(a) The manner of election of the President and the extent of the executive powers of the Union and the States (Articles 54, 55, 73, 162, 241 and 279A).

(b) Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI; or

(c) any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule; or

(d) the representation of States in Parliament; or

(e) the amendment procedure itself under Article 368.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

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QUESTION 4

With reference to the cases in news, consider the following pairs:

1. Voluntary Health Association of Punjab v. Union of India – Prevention of sex-selective practices and effective implementation of the PCPNDT Act.

2. Amit Kumar & Ors v. Union of India (2026) – Constitution of a National Task Force to address student suicides and improve student mental well-being.

Which of the following pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Relevance: UPSC often asks match-the-following questions linking important Supreme Court cases with their subject matter. Issues such as gender justice, implementation of social legislation, mental health, and educational welfare are frequently in current affairs.

Explanation

— The interim report of the Supreme Court-appointed National Task Force (NTF) on student mental health and suicides, released Monday (June 8), argues that student suicides in India cannot be understood only as a mental health issue.

— The Supreme Court noted in Amit Kumar & Ors v. Union of India (2026) noted that student suicides in India had doubled over a decade, reaching 13,000 cases in 2022 — more than farmer suicides in the same year — and constituting 7.6% of all deaths by suicide in the country. It then constituted a NTF, chaired by former Supreme Court judge Justice S Ravindra Bhat, to study the causes, review existing laws and institutional mechanisms, and recommend a framework for prevention.

— The Supreme Court dismissed an appeal of a Maharashtra-based doctor seeking to quash proceedings against him filed under the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 (PCPNDT Act). The court looked at the history of the Act and the prevalent issue of the skewed sex ratios in many parts of India, and said that statistics show that while progress has been made in improving the ratio, it is incomplete and uneven.

— Between 1981 and 1991, the child sex ratio, that is, number of girls per 1,000 boys in the 0 to 6 age group, saw a decline in India from 962 to 945. As ultrasound techniques began mushrooming around the time, the PCPNDT Act was passed, making pre-natal determination illegal.

— The Supreme Court referred to previous judgments on the Act, like Voluntary Health Association of Punjab v. Union of India, where it had said that female foeticide leads to manifold social problems and has its roots in social thinking based on erroneous notions, egocentric traditions, and perverted perception of social norms.

Cases in News

Description

Voluntary Health Association of Punjab v. Union of India

Prevention of sex-selective practices and effective implementation of the PCPNDT Act

Amit Kumar & Ors. v. Union of India (2026)

Constitution of a National Task Force to address student suicides and improve student mental well-being

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements:

1. When the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is, by reason of absence or otherwise, unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of the office shall be performed by the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. If at any time there should not be a quorum of the Judges of the Supreme Court available to hold or continue any session of the Court, then the President may directly appoint any retired Supreme Court Judge as an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: Recent discussions on the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice of India and the use of ad hoc judges to address judicial pendency have brought Articles 126 and 127 into focus. UPSC can ask statement-based questions on the constitutional provisions relating to the Supreme Court, judicial appointments, and court functioning.

Explanation

— When the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is, by reason of absence or otherwise, unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of the office shall be performed by such one of the other Judges of the Court as the President may appoint for the purpose. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— According to Article 127, if there is no quorum of Supreme Court judges available to hold or continue a session, the Chief Justice of India, with the President’s prior consent and after consulting with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court, may request a qualified High Court judge to sit and act as an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 158)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 166)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 166)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 166)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 166)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 166)

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