UPSC Prelims 2027 Polity Quiz (Week 169): MCQs on misleading advertisement, Special Intensive Revision and more

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.

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The term “misleading advertisement” was recently in the news. Consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘misleading advertisement’ is defined under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

2. It refers to making false representations about the standard, quality or composition of goods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Relevance: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is an important component of governance and regulatory frameworks, and UPSC has frequently asked questions on key provisions of major legislations. UPSC often frames Prelims questions that test candidates’ ability to distinguish between closely related legal definitions and regulatory provisions, especially those discussed in the news.

Explanation

— From juices to breads, the “100%” label is a near-ubiquitous marketing tool meant to assure consumers of a product’s unadulterated quality. However, in two separate orders passed this month, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) imposed a penalty of Rs 1 lakh each on two major food and beverage companies — Mrs. Bectors Food Specialities Ltd and Storia Foods and Beverages Pvt Ltd — for running misleading advertisements and engaging in unfair trade practices by prominently using “100%” claims on their packaging and promotional materials. It also ordered them to immediately discontinue these advertisements.

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— Central to both cases is the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The CCPA invoked Section 2(28) of the Act, which defines a “misleading advertisement” as one that falsely describes a product, gives a false guarantee or deliberately conceals important information. It also relied on Section 2(47), which defines an “unfair trade practice” as making false representations about the standard, quality or composition of goods. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The regulatory backdrop for these orders was set by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). In an advisory issued in May last year, the food regulator noted a growing trend of brands using the “100%” term. The FSSAI underlined that the term is not defined in its advertising regulations and that its use “is likely to convey a false sense of absolute purity or superiority, potentially leading consumers to believe that competing products in the market do not comply with prescribed standards.”

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. Article 22(1) of the Constitution gives every person the fundamental right not to be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice.

2. Article 16 provides for equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

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3. Article 39A states that the state should also ensure that equal opportunity to secure justice is not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities, providing for free legal aid.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Relevance: The concepts of legal aid, access to justice, and constitutional protections for arrested persons have remained relevant due to recent judicial pronouncements and discussions on legal reforms. UPSC often frames questions that require candidates to distinguish between closely related constitutional provisions.

Explanation

— The Ayodhya Bar Association on Monday (June 29) announced that none of its lawyers will defend the eight accused booked for the alleged embezzlement of funds for the Ram temple. The association said it would impose a Rs 5 lakh fine on lawyers if they represent them. This is not the first time that lawyers’ bar associations have passed such resolutions despite Supreme Court rulings stating they were “against all norms of the Constitution, the statute and professional ethics”.

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What does the Indian Constitution say about an accused’s right to be defended?

— Article 22(1) of the Constitution gives every person the fundamental right not to be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Article 14 provides for equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Article 39A, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, also requires the state to ensure that the legal system promotes justice. It states that the state should also ensure that equal opportunity to secure justice is not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities, providing for free legal aid. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The President may by order remove from office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be, —

1. is adjudged an insolvent

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2. engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office

3. is found guilty of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority

4. is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Relevance: Constitutional bodies and their appointment, tenure, and removal procedures are a recurring theme in UPSC Prelims, with questions often testing subtle distinctions between different constitutional offices.

Explanation

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— The President may by order remove from office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be,—

(a) is adjudged an insolvent; or Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or Hence, statement 2 is correct.

(c) is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

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— The procedure involving removal “after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority” applies to certain other constitutional authorities, such as judges of the higher judiciary, and not to members of a Public Service Commission. In cases of misbehaviour, the President refers the matter to the Supreme Court of India for an inquiry under Article 317. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a:

(a) constitutional mechanism under which the Election Commission of India conducts mandatory delimitation of parliamentary and assembly constituencies after every Census.

(b) nationwide programme launched by the Union government to issue a single digital identity card by integrating voter ID, Aadhaar, and ration card databases.

(c) special electoral reform initiative aimed at introducing online voting and blockchain-based verification for all urban voters.

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(d) nationwide exercise aimed at improving the accuracy of electoral rolls by verifying voter records through house-to-house enumeration, pre-filled forms, and cross-checking of existing data.

Relevance: UPSC often frames questions on new initiatives, administrative procedures, and election-related reforms, making awareness of exercises like SIR important from a current affairs perspective.

Explanation

— On June 30, the Election Commission of India (ECI) began the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Karnataka, Meghalaya, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Delhi.

— The SIR is a nationwide exercise aimed at improving the accuracy of electoral rolls by verifying voter records through house-to-house enumeration, pre-filled forms, and cross-checking of existing data.

— The exercise seeks to remove the names of deceased voters, those who have permanently moved, duplicate entries, and non-citizens, while ensuring that all eligible citizens who are missing from the rolls are included.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following are the principles of policy to be followed by the State?

1. the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood

2. the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good

3. there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women

4. the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Relevance: UPSC has repeatedly framed questions requiring differentiation between Fundamental Rights, DPSPs, and Fundamental Duties, making precise knowledge of Article 39 essential. It is also linked to contemporary issues such as social justice, welfare policies, gender equality, and equitable distribution of resources, enhancing their current affairs relevance.

Explanation

— The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing—

(a) that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood;

(b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good;

(c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment;

(d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women;

(e) that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength;

(f) that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 159)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 168)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 168)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 168)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 168)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 168)

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